So conventional wisdom suggests that DHT is the cause of all genetic hair loss and that DHT is what causes facial and body hair to grow.
Its pretty well documented that men with more body hair are more likely to go bald/are more often bald. What is also well documented is that males who are balding do not in fact have higher DHT than men who show no signs of balding.
I know personally that my body hair has gotten thicker and thicker - especially as my hairline has worsened.
This in itself suggests that DHT cannot be the cause of baldness right? Unless it can all be chalked down to being 'sensitivity'. I have heard somebody say something about sensitivity being the same for all follicles and that it was tested by I haven't been able to find the source- I'd appreciate it if somebody could link it to me.
Does this mean it is a problem with SHBG not binding to free DHT? That seems far too simple to me so I was hoping more enlightened members can fill me in.
Its pretty well documented that men with more body hair are more likely to go bald/are more often bald. What is also well documented is that males who are balding do not in fact have higher DHT than men who show no signs of balding.
I know personally that my body hair has gotten thicker and thicker - especially as my hairline has worsened.
This in itself suggests that DHT cannot be the cause of baldness right? Unless it can all be chalked down to being 'sensitivity'. I have heard somebody say something about sensitivity being the same for all follicles and that it was tested by I haven't been able to find the source- I'd appreciate it if somebody could link it to me.
Does this mean it is a problem with SHBG not binding to free DHT? That seems far too simple to me so I was hoping more enlightened members can fill me in.